Is it correct to say that the London Baptist Confession of 1677 and 1689 state that the Bible is preserved in only the Hebrew and the Greek?

There are genuine questions concerning the preservation of the scriptures into English. Is it necessary to find the answers to all of the problems or should we just trust that the Lord has preserved His word?

The book of Ezra, and the book of Nehemiah both list the tribes and number of people) that left Babylonian captivity. The number of people in each tribe differ when comparing Ezra and Nehemiah. The total number appears to be correct, but why do about half of the tribe totals differ from one book to the other?

Does the Bible teach that the use of strong drink is acceptable? Are there times which God permits or even encourages His people to partake of strong drink?

It appears that the last words of Jesus contradict each other when comparing the gospels. How can this be explained?

I read that the main underlying text for our A.V is Beza's 2nd edition. Yet, upon reading Burgon's 'Revision Revised' I found that the corrupt text 'D', which Burgon calls the worst corruption, is also Beza's. Is it the same Beza? and if so, what happened between his two texts that they are so very different?

Why does the KJV add an "s" to cherubim and seraphim, if the two words are plural already?

The Greek word "agape" is translated both into both "charity" and "love" in the New Testament so what is the difference?

According to the King James Bible Judas is called the "brother" of James, yet the modern versions say that he was the "son" of James. Which of these is correct?

Can we get a better understanding of John 21 by knowing the Greek words agape and phileo? Don't we miss out on a great nugget by having the English word "love" instead of the original Greek words?